During class this week, we talked about Goldberg’s reading and how sodomy is associated with homosexuality. I see how it may be associated with homosexuals because it is a non-repoductive act, but in no way shape or form does it mean it excludes heterosexuals as well. Sodomy is made out to be this horrific action that only same sex relationships participate in. By definition, sodomy is “sexual intercourse involving anal or oral copulation.” Just by reading this definition I do not seem to understand why society makes it out to be such a “bad” thing to do. I mean if you really think about it, mostly everyone joins in on some version of sodomy in their partner relationships, whether same sex or not, at one point or another. Oral/anal sexual intercourse should not be looked at as a corrupt action… it is simply a part of sexual intercourse as a whole. Just because sodomy does not result in actual reproduction does not mean it should be automatically connected to homosexuality. Chances are heterosexuals are participating in sodomy just as much as homosexuals are. Once again, we see society falling into the binary norms and judging homosexuals for joining in sodomy. It is safe to say that basically everyone has or had oral/anal sex at least once in their life. For some it may not be their “cup of tea”, but for the most part, everyone around us has taken a part in some sort of sodomy as much as the next person does.